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ECO 284,  SECOND EXAM



Multiple Choice
An actual exam from a semester in the past. Note that questions 30 - 40 concern chapter eight. Our second exam covers only chapters five through seven.
 

1. 

Which of the following is not true regarding a change in quantity demanded?
A. A change in quantity demanded is shown by a movement along a given demand curve.   B. The demand curve shifts whenever the quantity demanded changes.   C. A change in the price of a good, other things constant, will lead to a change in quantity demanded.   D. The lower the price of a product, other things constant, the higher the quantity demanded.   E. A shift in the supply curve might cause a change in quantity demanded.
 

2. 

If the government imposes a ceiling price on apartment rents, we would expect to observe all of the following except one. Which is the exception?
A. an increase in the number of new apartment complexes being built   B. long waiting lists for apartment seekers   C. lower maintenance of existing apartments   D. conversion of some apartment complexes to condos   E. a shortage
 

3. 

In which of the following situations will the effect upon the equilibrium price of wheat be indeterminate?
A. supply decreases and demand increases   B. demand decreases and supply increases   C. demand remains constant and supply increases   D. supply decreases and demand decreases   E. supply remains constant and demand increases
 

4. 

A country should export only those goods for which, relative to its trading partners, it has the
A. absolute advantage   B. highest opportunity cost   C. lowest production possibilities   D. strongest demand   E. lowest opportunity cost
 

5. 

International trade does all the following except
A. allow a country to specialize in producing certain goods and services   B. reduce world output   C. allow a country to move to a higher consumption possibilities frontier   D. allow a country's consumption possibilities frontier to lie outside its production possibilities frontier   E. increase world output
 

6. 

The opportunity cost of producing one car in Assam is 2,000 bushels of wheat, and the opportunity cost of producing one car in Bihar is 1,200 bushels of wheat. The two countries can realize mutual gains from trade if they agree on terms of trade that are
A. greater than 2,000 bushels of wheat per car   B. less than 1,200 bushels of wheat per car   C. greater than 1,200 bushels of wheat per car and less than 2,000 bushels of wheat per car, and Assam produces wheat   D. greater than 1,200 bushels of wheat per car and less than 2,000 bushels of wheat per car, and Assam produces cars   E. greater than 1,200 bushels of wheat per car and less than 2,000 bushels of wheat per car, and each country produces both goods
 

7. 

The price elasticity of demand is equal to the slope of the demand curve.
A. True   B. False
 

8. 

Firms would like to know the price elasticity of demand for their product because it helps determine the effect of price changes on the firms'
A. property taxes   B. profits   C. quantity supplied   D. revenues   E. total costs
 

9. 

A good synonym for elasticity would be
A. stability   B. volatility   C. stickiness   D. demand   E. responsiveness
 

10. 

A good whose price represents a very large percentage of the consumer's budget will tend to have
A. more elastic demand   B. a perfectly elastic demand   C. more inelastic demand   D. an upward-sloping demand curve   E. very many substitutes
 

11. 

If price increases from $45 to $55, the market quantity supplied increases from 20 units per week to 30 units per week. The price elasticity of supply is
A. 1/2 = 0.5   B. 1.0   C. 11/6 = 1.8333   D. 9/4 = 2.25   E. 2.0
 

12. 

Along a linear demand curve, as the price rises, demand becomes more
A. steep   B. elastic   C. inelastic   D. unit elastic   E. variable
 

13. 

Both income elasticity of demand and cross-price elasticity of demand coefficients can take on negative, zero, or positive values.
A. True   B. False
 

14. 

As cities prospered and per capita incomes increased, the demand for bus travel diminished. This suggests that
A. cities could raise revenue by increasing bus fares   B. the demand for bus travel is price elastic   C. bus travel and automobile travel are complements   D. bus travel is an inferior good   E. bus travel is a luxury
 
 
exam_2_study_guide_files/i0160000.jpg
 

15. 

Based on the information in Exhibit 0060, we can determine that the demand for the good is __________ and an increase in price from $40 to $60 per unit will __________ total revenue.
A. unit elastic; increase   B. elastic; decrease   C. unit elastic; not change   D. inelastic; increase   E. elastic; increase
 

16. 

Price elasticity of demand and price elasticity of supply are both influenced by
A. the availability of close substitutes for the product   B. the proportion of the consumer's budget spend on the product   C. the length of the adjustment period considered   D. technological conditions such as the additional costs of increasing production   E. none of the above
 

17. 

Two friends, Diane and Sam, own and run a bar. Diane tends bar on Monday, Wednesday, and Friday and receives a wage in addition to tips. Sam tends bar on Tuesday, Thursday, and Saturday and receives only tips. Which of the following represents an implicit cost of operating the bar?
A. Diane's wage   B. Sam's time   C. Diane's tips   D. Sam's tips   E. both Diane's and Sam's tips
 

18. 

The marginal product of labor is the
A. cost of one worker   B. average output per worker   C. change in revenue from selling one more unit of output   D. change in revenue from using one more unit of labor   E. change in output from using one more unit of labor
 

19. 

When marginal product is decreasing, marginal cost is
A. less than zero   B. equal to zero   C. constant   D. decreasing   E. increasing
 

20. 

The graph of average fixed cost is a horizontal line.
A. True   B. False
 
 
exam_2_study_guide_files/i0230000.jpg
 

21. 

What is the price elasticity of supply between $20 and $40 on supply curve S' in Exhibit 5-3?
A. 0   B. infinity   C. 1   D. 2   E. 10
 

22. 

As output increases, diseconomies of scale
A. lead to rising long-run average costs   B. lead to declining long-run average costs   C. lead to rising short-run average total costs   D. lead to declining short-run total cost   E. lead to declining long-run marginal costs
 

23. 

Doubling the circumference of an oil pipeline more than doubles the volume of oil that can be pumped through. This is an example of
A. production inefficiency   B. diminishing marginal returns   C. diseconomies of scale   D. constant returns to scale   E. economies of scale
 

24. 

The minimum efficient scale for a firm is the
A. lowest rate of output at which long-run average cost is at a minimum   B. lowest rate of output at which short-run average total cost is at a minimum   C. lowest rate of output at which short-run average variable cost is at a minimum   D. average of the rates of output at which long-run average cost is at a minimum   E. average of the rates of output at which short-run average total cost is at a minimum
 
 
exam_2_study_guide_files/i0280000.jpg
 

25. 

In Exhibit 0103, diminishing marginal returns set in with the addition of the
A. first worker   B. third worker   C. fourth worker   D. fifth worker   E. seventh worker
 

26. 

For each size of plant a manufacturer could build, there is a different
A. long-run average fixed cost curve   B. long-run average variable cost curve   C. short-run average total cost curve   D. long-run average total cost curve   E. long-run marginal cost curve
 

27. 

The relationship between average and marginal variables can be stated as follows: if the marginal is greater than the average, then
A. the average is increasing   B. the average is decreasing   C. the marginal is increasing   D. the marginal is decreasing   E. the total is decreasing
 
 
exam_2_study_guide_files/i0320000.jpg
 

28. 

In Exhibit 0106, what is fixed cost at 15 units of output?
A. $0   B. $10   C. $30   D. it is impossible to calculate fixed cost unless we know the daily wage   E. it is impossible to calculate fixed cost unless we know variable cost at Q = 0
 

29. 

In Exhibit 0106, what is the marginal cost of the 15th unit of output?
A. $30   B. $10   C. $1   D. $20   E. it is impossible to calculate marginal cost unless we know the daily wage
 

30. 

Experimental evidence suggests that
A. markets quickly adjust to equate quantities demanded and supplied   B. markets often do not adjust as quickly as economists previously believed   C. large numbers of buyers are necessary in order for a market to behave competitively   D. large numbers of sellers are necessary in order for a market to behave competitively   E. large number of buyers and sellers are necessary in order for markets to behave competitively
 

31. 

Allocative efficiency occurs in markets when
A. marginal benefit and marginal cost for the last unit sold are equal   B. resources can be reallocated to increase the value of total output   C. goods are produced at the minimum of average total cost   D. goods are distributed evenly among consumers   E. government establishes price ceilings below the market price
 

32. 

A horizontal long-run industry supply curve occurs under conditions of
A. economies of scale   B. diseconomies of scale   C. monopoly   D. increasing costs   E. constant costs
 

33. 

A perfectly competitive firm faces a horizontal demand curve because
A. it is so large relative to the market as a whole that it controls the market price   B. it is so small relative to the market as a whole that it has no impact on market price   C. it produces a good for which there are no substitutes   D. it produces a good for which there are no complements   E. it produces a good that no other firm in the industry produces
 

34. 

A perfectly competitive firm's profit per unit of output equals
A. price minus average variable cost   B. price minus marginal cost   C. total revenue minus total cost   D. price times quantity   E. price minus average total cost
 
 
exam_2_study_guide_files/i0400000.jpg
 

35. 

If the price-taking firm in Exhibit 0126 is currently producing 6 units, then to maximize profits (or minimize losses) in the short run, it should
A. keep producing 6 units   B. increase production to 12 units   C. increase production to 14 units   D. increase production to 8 units   E. shut down
 
 
exam_2_study_guide_files/i0420000.jpg
 

36. 

In Exhibit 0127, price equals
A. $28   B. $12   C. $40   D. $20   E. $24
 

37. 

At the profit-maximizing output level, the firm represented in Exhibit 0127 experiences
A. a loss of $3,200   B. a profit of $1,600   C. a profit of $1,200   D. zero profit or loss   E. a loss of $800
 
 
exam_2_study_guide_files/i0450000.jpg
 

38. 

Consider Exhibit 0135.  Assume the firm is perfectly competitive and the market price is $21.  To maximize profit or minimize loss, the firm will
A. shut down   B. produce 7 units   C. produce 3 units   D. produce 4 units   E. produce 5 units
 
 
exam_2_study_guide_files/i0470000.jpg
 

39. 

Assuming all of the firms are identical, how many firms are in the industry before and after the demand shift depicted in Exhibit 0136?
A. Fifty firms are in the industry before and after the demand shift.   B. Forty firms are in the industry before the demand shift; after the shift, the amount can't be determined.   C. Fifty firms are in the industry after the demand shift; before the shift, the amount can't be determined.   D. The number of individual firms cannot be determined from the information given.   E. The exact number of individual firms can't be determined, but more are in the industry after the demand shift than before it.
 

40. 

The increase in demand shown in Exhibit 0136 increases each firm's total revenue
A. from $8 to $12   B. from $16,000 to $30,000   C. from $40 to $50   D. from $320 to $600   E. by an unspecified amount
 



 
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